Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:02
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
6 Benefits of Beet Juice, Plus Nutrition and Risks - health.com
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What are the best items to buy from a furniture shop?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.